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Often people ask why Catholics use the Deuterocanonical
books, and many Protestants do not. For the most part there is
nothing in the Deuterocanonical books that would separate different
forms of Christianity, except for two passages. In 2 Maccabees
chapter 12, they pray for the souls of the dead. This passage
is significant in that it contradicts justification by faith alone,
and supports the idea of purgatory. Another point is in Tobit
12:12 where the angel Raphael presents Tobit's and Sarah's prayers
to God. This is an example of intercessory prayer instead of
praying "direct to God".
In popular history the earliest known canon of old testament books
is known as the Septuagint. The Septuagint
was translated from Hebrew to Greek by seventy (hence Septuagint,
commonly abbreviated LXX) scholars for Alexander's great library
in Egypt around the year 300 BC. Supposedly, the scholars were
commissioned by Alexander the Great to collect the writings of
all the major religions of the time. The Septuagint contains
the Old Testament books shared by all Christians along with the
Deuterocanonical books used by Catholics, traditional Protestants
, and many Orthodox Churches.
In "The New Jerome Biblical Commentary" (NJBC) the
authors suggest a more plausible history regarding the Septuagint
arguing that the existence of the seventy seems unlikely, and
it is more likely that the books were collected and translated
over time. Other sources give different dates as well, but it
is generally agreed the translation was complete by 100 BC.
Much of the debate today centers on whether Jesus accepted the
Septuagint as scripture. In the Gospels Jesus never quotes the
Septuagint directly. This does not condemn the Deuterocanonical
books since there are many other Old Testament (OT) books Jesus
did not quote either. No Christian Church accepts only those
OT books quoted by Jesus. Old Testament books not quoted by Jesus
are still considered scripture. So what did Jesus mean when he
refers to scriptures? This seems to be the more compelling question
because apparently there was no closed canon of scripture in Jesus'
time.
In The NJBC the authors maintain that there was no clear canon
of scripture at the time of Christ. After reviewing the data
they state "The conclusion that there was no rigidly closed
canon in Judaism in the 1st or 2nd centuries AD means that when
the church was in its formation period and was using the sacred
books of the Jews, there was no closed canon for the church to
adopt" [p. 1041] Part of the evidence they present is
the existence of Deuterocanonical books in the Qumran scrolls
(Dead Sea scrolls). In these scrolls were found parts of three
Deuterocanonical texts giving the impression that there was very
little distinction between a closed canon and all other texts.
They note that both "scriptural" texts and secular
texts are included together, with no apparent distinction.
They also dispel any notion that Jews in Jerusalem had a different
canon than Jews elsewhere. "The thesis that the Jews in
Alexandria had a different theory of inspiration from the theory
shared by the Jews in Jerusalem is gratuitous" [p 1041]
Jamnia, (aka Jabneel) was a city about 12 miles south of Judah
near the present day city of Yebna. In the late first century,
after the fall of Jerusalem in 70 AD, it became a seat of Jewish
learning. According to popular history a council was held in
Jamnia that determined the canon of the Old Testament. The dates
for this council range from 75 AD to 100 AD depending on the reference
used. In The NJBC the authors maintain that there never was a
council at Jamnia, but instead it was a well respected rabbinical
school. "There is no evidence that any list of books was
drawn up at Jamnia." (p 1040).
"In the first century the Christian Bible had simply been
the Old Testament (read in the Septuagint version). Authority
resided in this scripture and in the words of the Lord, which
long circulated in oral tradition, as is apparent in the letter
of Clement to the Corinthians." ("The Early Church"
Henry Chadwick p 42)
The LXX version was also used by the authors of the New Testament.
Most scholars date the New Testament books to various dates
between 75 AD and about 150 AD depending on the book. The authors
of scripture, writing in Greek, cite the Septuagint version Old
Testament books since the Septuagint was in Greek.
As the Christian Church grew and started separating from Judaism,
the Jews also began to codify a set of books that where inspired.
(Either in response to Christianity or to divisions between the
different Jewish schools.) In the NJBC they assert that the discussions
with early Christians also contributed to the decisions of what
OT books constituted scripture. In "The Early Church"
Henry Chadwick points out that it was only after Christian appeals
to the Septuagint became embarrassing that more literal (to the
Hebrew) translations became favored by the Greek synagogue (p
12). Some rabbis even denounced the making of the Septuagint
as a sin like the worship of the golden calf!
It was in these early years of Church formation that the two distinct
Old Testaments were codified. The Jews did not have access to
the entire LXX texts in original Hebrew; using this as a basis,
they rejected the Deuterocanonical books as not being inspired.
Until the 4th century most Christians used the LXX as the basis
for the OT. Of course there was a considerable amount of literature
floating around that was also considered scripture and the early
Church councils dealt to a large degree with this issue. What
exactly constituted scripture?
Surprisingly Saint Jerome, whose Latin vulgate translation became
the official translation of the Catholic Church, did not want
to include the Deuterocanonical books in the translation. Jerome
lived in Palestine and was aware of the Hebrew canon that had
developed. His contemporary Saint Augustine arguing from tradition,
wanted them included in new vulgate translation. After conferring
with Pope Damasus and realizing most people sided with Augustine,
Jerome included the Deuterocanonical books in his translation.
(It is important to note that many in Rome were opposed to anything
Jerome did -- he was not well liked in the ancient capital.)
Jerome's vulgate, although not the only translation in the Church,
was widely regarded and used in the Western world. The Septuagint
along with Greek texts was widely used in the Eastern Church.
For many years throughout Christendom the bible, with the Septuagint,
was used. Martin Luther's break from Catholicism and the development
of the idea of "faith alone" as the basis for salvation
gave the reformers a chance to question books in the bible that
did not support this view. The reformers particulary attacked
Hebrews, Revelation, and the Deuterocanonical books. Since the
New Testament books had already been agreed upon at the council
at Carthage in 395AD, the idea of removing Hebrews and Revelation
from the bible was not widely embraced. The Deuterocanonicals,
however, did not fare so well. Some reformation churches included
them in scripture and others did not. Finally the Church was
forced to formally recognized what books had been traditionally
used. This was done at the council of Trent, and this list, based
on traditional Christian teaching is the list of books used by
Catholic today.
The Old Testament Before Christ
Scripture During Jesus' Time
Jamnia
The Deuterocanonical Books in the Early Church
Jerome Versus Augustine
So What Happened?